Exam 98-349 Interview Questions

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Exam 98-349 Interview Questions

Well, interview preparation for any exam is an essential step towards achieving the desired goal. Preparing for an interview like that of Microsoft 98-349 makes it necessary to not only have expertise in the technical field but also the capability to demonstrate the answers well. In order to boost your preparation for the interview, our experts have compiled the set of very frequently asked and the best possible Exam 98-349 interview questions. These will help you gain a fair idea about how the interview actually goes but before starting with the questions let’s take an overview of the exam.

The Microsoft Windows Operating System Fundamentals exam is generally meant for candidates who wish to build their career in the windows operating system at an introductory level. This exam presents basic knowledge and skills of Operating System Configurations, Installing and Upgrading Client Systems, Managing Applications, Managing Devices, Managing Files and Folders, and maintenance of Operating System. The following groups of people are mainly targeted in this exam.

  • Developers
  • Home PC users
  • Information workers
  • Academic workers
  • IT professionals

Let’s move on to the interview questions now.

Q1. What is a mandatory user profile?

A mandatory user profile can be defined as a roaming user profile that is pre-configured by an administrator so as to specify settings for the users. Settings in a mandatory user profile generally include-

  • icons that appear on the desktop
  • user preferences in Control Panel
  • desktop backgrounds
  • printer selections, etc

Configuration changes that are made during a user’s session are usually saved to a roaming user profile but are not saved when a mandatory user profile is assigned.

Q2. What are the main policies of Windows 10?

The two main policies that Windows define are Quick removal and Better performance. These are responsible for controlling how the system interacts with external storage devices like USB thumb drives or Thunderbolt-enabled external drives. While beginning in Windows 10 version 1809, by default the policy is Quick removal.

Q3. Define administrative tools.

Well, the administrative tools is a folder that is located in the Control Panel that consists of tools for system administrators and advanced users. Moreover, the tools in the folder may differ depending on the edition of Windows that you are using.

Q4. Suggest a way of managing pages.

We can manage the pages shown in the Settings app with the use of Group Policy. With the use of Group Policy in managing pages, we can hide specific pages from users. Infact, before Windows 10, version 1703, one could either show everything or hide it completely in the Settings app.

Q5. What do you mean by CSP?

CSP stands for a Configuration Service Provider. This is an interface to read, set, style, or delete the configuration settings on a device. These settings map to registry keys or files. Some of the configuration service providers support the WAP format while some others support SyncML or even both.

  • SyncML is only used over–the–air for Open Mobile Alliance Device Management.
  • WAP can be used over–the–air for OMA Client Provisioning, or can even be included in the phone image as a .provxml file that is installed during boot.

Q6. What is the use of AccountManagement CSP?

People use AccountManagement CSP to configure the setting in Account Manager service in Windows Holographic for Business edition.

Q7. What is the purpose of Quick Assist?

Quick Assist is a Windows 10 application that enables a person to share their device with another person over a remote connection. Your support staff can use it to remotely connect to a user’s device and then view its display, make annotations, or take full control. In this way, they can troubleshoot, diagnose technological issues, and provide instructions to users directly on their devices.

Q8. What is the full form of LTSC and SAC?

 LTSC and SAC stand for Long-Term Servicing Channel and Semi-Annual Channel, respectively.

Q9. Mention some common errors on the application end?

Some of such errors are:

  • Application connectivity to a database server
  • BizTalk application timeout errors
  • SQL timeout errors
  • Remote Desktop Protocol failures
  • General connectivity errors
  • File share access failures

Q10. Describe the use of RPC.

RPC stands for Remote Procedure Call. This is a dynamic port allocation that is used by server applications and remote administration applications like Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol Manager, Windows Internet Name Service Manager, etc. RPC dynamic port allocation guides the RPC program in a way so as to use a particular port in the range configured for TCP and UDP, on the basis of implementation of the operating system that is used.

Q11. What does the term service management mean?

The mindset of service management means that the devices in an organization fall into a continuum, wherein the software update process is being constantly planned, monitored, deployed, and optimized. Now, once you use this process for feature updates, quality updates become an easier process that is simple and fast to execute and hence increases the velocity.

Q12. Explain the calendar approach.

The calendar approach can be used either for a faster twice-per-year cadence or for an annual cadence. Depending on the size of the company, installing Windows 10 feature updates less often than once annually puts the risk on devices going out of service and becoming vulnerable to security threats as they will not get the monthly security updates.

Q13. What do Quality updates refer to?

Quality updates are meant to deliver both securities as well as non-security fixes. They are generally released on the second Tuesday of each month, though the time can be different. These updates consist of security updates, servicing stack updates, critical updates, and driver updates. Quality updates are cumulative, so installing the latest quality update is enough to get all the available fixes for a specific feature update of Windows 10.

Q14. Elaborate the term deployment rings.

The term deployment rings basically refer to the groups of devices used to firstly pilot, and then to broadly deploy, each feature update in a company.

Q15. What are the phases in process of Windows update?

The phases in the procedure of Windows update are:

  • Scan
  • Download
  • Install
  • Commit and restart

Q16. What is an Update Baseline?

Update Baseline is an industry-tested solution that finds its use in improving update adoption rates along with the maintenance of a high-quality user experience. So, Update Baseline can help you get a known good state with an amazing user experience, whether you are just starting out, or you have been configuring policies for years. The application of baseline is particularly helpful for companies that have many years of policy configurations in order to clear out lingering misconfigurations.

Q17. What is the use of UAC?

User Account Control that is UAC is helpful in preventing malware from damaging a PC and therefore helps organizations in deploying a better-managed desktop. With the use of UAC, apps and tasks run in the security context of a non-administrator account, unless and until an administrator particularly authorizes administrator-level access to the system. UAC is capable of blocking the automatic installation of unauthorized apps and also prevent inadvertent changes to the system settings.

Q18. What do you know about the BitLocker feature?

So, BitLocker is basically an encryption feature that is built-in for the computers running Windows 10 Pro ( not for Windows 10 Home). BitLocker creates a safe and secure environment for data while requiring zero extra effort. In fact, once it’s set up, one might even forget that it’s there and working.

Q19. What do you mean by Malware?

Malware is used to describe malicious applications and code that can cause damage and disrupt the normal use of devices. It can allow unauthorized access, use system resources, lock you out of your computer, steal passwords and even ask for ransom, and more.

Q20. What is Azure AD Connect?

Azure AD Connect is a tool of Microsoft that finds its use to meet and hence accomplish your hybrid identity goals. This also allows you to provide a common identity for users for Microsoft 365, Azure, and SaaS applications integrated with Azure AD.

Q21. What is the use of Windows Hello?

For business, Windows Hello is a distributed system that makes use of several components so as to accomplish device registration, provisioning, and authentication.

Q22. Explain SaaS.

Software as a service(SaaS) is a method for delivering software applications over the Internet, typically on a subscription basis. With SaaS, cloud providers can host and manage their software application and underlying infrastructure and also handle any sort of maintenance, like software upgrades and security patching. Users usually connect to the application over the Internet, with a web browser on their phone, or PC.

Q23. Name some types of Malware.

There are various types of malware such as:

  • Coin miners
  • Macro malware
  • Exploits and exploit kits
  • Phishing
  • Rootkits
  • Ransomware
  • Supply chain attacks
  • Trojans
  • Tech support scams
  • Unwanted software
  • Worms

Q24. How does Microsoft 365 support MFA?

Well, Microsoft 365 supports MFA for user accounts using:

  • The Microsoft Authenticator smartphone app.
  • A text message sent to a phone mandates the user to type a verification code.
  • A phone call.

Q25. Mention the features of Azure AD Connect.

Azure AD Connect provides the following features:

  • Synchronization
  • Pass-through authentication
  • AD FS and federation integration
  • Monitoring of Health

Q26. What does FVE stand for?

FVE stands for Full volume encryption

Q27. How are storage spaces helpful?

Storage Spaces help in protecting our data from drive failures and also extend storage over time as we add drives to the PC. One can use Storage Spaces to group two or more drives together in a storage pool and then use the capacity from that pool in order to create virtual drives known as storage spaces. These storage spaces store two copies of data so that in case one of the drives fails, we still have an intact copy of the data.

Q28. Mention the variety of drives used with storage spaces?

Everyone needs at least two extra drives along with the drive where the Windows installs. These drives can be internal or external hard drives, or maybe solid state drives. One can use different types of drives with Storage Spaces, like USB, SAS, and SATA drives.

Q29. How is device compatibility in Windows 10?

Device compatibility in Windows 10 is also very strong; new hardware is not needed for Windows 10 as any device capable of running Windows 7 or later can run Windows 10. In fact, the minimum hardware requirements to run Windows 10 are the same as those required for Windows 7. Most hardware drivers that functioned in Windows 8.1, Windows 8, or Windows 7 will continue to function in Windows 10.

Q30. What are the release channels of Windows 10?

Windows 10 has the following release channels:

  • The Semi-Annual Channel, that receives feature updates twice per year.
  • The Long-Term Servicing Channel, which is used only for specialized devices like those that control medical equipment or ATM machines. They receive new feature releases every two to three years.

Q31. What does WSUS stand for?

WSUS stands for Windows Server Update Services

Q32. Explain the use of Microsoft Endpoint Configuration Manager.

Microsoft Endpoint Configuration Manager offers wide control over servicing Windows as a service. IT pros can defer updates, approve them, have multiple options for targeting deployments, managing bandwidth usage, and deployment times.

Q33. What does Windows ADK include?

The Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit that is Windows ADK, comprises of tools that IT Pros use to deploy Windows

Q34. Describe the purpose of Windows 10 PoC.

The Windows 10 PoC guide offers the ability to test Windows 10 deployment in a virtual environment and become familiar with deployment tools like MDT and Configuration Manager. The PoC guide gives step-by-step instructions for installing and using Hyper-V so as to create a virtual lab environment. This guide makes huge use of Windows PowerShell to streamline each phase of the installation and setup.

Q35. What do you know about Windows Autopilot?

Windows Autopilot is a collection of technologies that are used to set up and pre-configure new devices, get them ready for productive use. Windows Autopilot can also be used to deploy Windows PCs or HoloLens 2 devices. 

Q36. Which details does hardware hash contain?

The hardware hash contains the following details:

  • manufacturer
  • device serial number
  • details about when the ID generates
  • model
  • hard drive serial number
  • other attributes which can be used to identify the device uniquely

Q37. When do we register devices manually?

We register devices manually in either of the following cases:

  • The device had been obtained from a non-participant device manufacturer.
  • Device is a virtual machine.
  • The device does not qualify for automatic registration, as an existing legacy device.
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